INAV test

INAV exam (as of April 2010) consists of 40 multiple-choice look-up questions (all from that stack of pubs you should have picked up before the INAV class), a JetLog (5 fill-in-the-blank questions) and DD-175 (5 random spaces get graded).

While it is opposite of what the pubs suggest, I would recommend you do the 40 look-up questions first, and at about the 2hr mark move on to the JetLog (if you really take two hours, you're well behind the power-curve). This is because not only is the look-up portion the majority of the points on the test, but often you can answer about half of the JetLog questions without even doing most the JetLog (things like reporting points, info about the approaches, the Remarks section, etc, which you can figure out in all of 5 minutes). So really you're probably spending 30-45 minutes trying to get those last 10 points.

From the INAV instructors: Do the reading list they give you in the INAV review classes. It isn't too bad if you split it up into a couple days. ***Every test question that isn't from the Jetlog and DD-175 is located somewhere in those pubs (with the exception of a couple of questions that involve reading worst case scenario METARS and TAFS. Review your MET book from Primary for these and use the FIH Section C for the codes). Also, those question about the METARS AND TAFS may be asking about the worst case scenario (+/- 1hr from ETA) but may term the question as "What is the forcasted weather for at your ETA?" and not "What is the forcasted weather at your ETA for planning purposes" Ask the instructors and clarify.***

You may be asked what you should tune in on a particular nav device at a particular point. This means you need to know that the KLN-900 is the GPS, the KR-87 is the ADF, and KNS-81 is the VOR/TACAN/ILS.

See a question that looks easy? IT'S A TRAP!! Look everything up.

Unless the question is specifically about a Navy regulation, chances are the answer can be found in the FAR/AIM. It has an index. Use it.

The gouge questions listed below are okay as a general review, but your primary focus should be the reading list. If you have extra time, do the practice problems from the end of Chapter 2 in your Instrument Navigation Workbook. There were two or three test questions from there on the INAV test version I took. If you fail the test and have not done all 9 of the practice problems from the book they gave you, they will crucify you. Do them.

The questions from the JetLog are typically things like 1) How many compulsory reporting points are on your route. 2) What is your ground speed between points a. and b. 3) How much fuel/time is required for the approach at your destination, etc.

Don't spend more than an hour on your JetLog & DD-175. Don't worry about fluff like frequencies and NAVAID identifiers...the graders are only allowed to look at the 5 fill-in-the-blank spaces. Do what you need to do to answer those questions so you leave enough time for the meat of the test, the 40 questions.

Also, since Fidelity has taken over they're really cracking down on the way the test is taken and graded, no more, "Oh I forgot to put in my estimated time to the alternate but I did write it on the Jet Log!" Tough. No points for you!

It's kind of a given but, right before you go hand that DD-175/Jet Log in, make sure you actually filled out all the question blanks and boxes. If you didn't get the jet log done in time, put in some answer. You know about how much fuel on board you should have, (2+47 to 3+00) so put in about 2+54 and hope for the best, you might get lucky!

=Skinner Gouge= Skinner INAV Questions

1.	You are being vectored through your FAF to your IAF due to traffic separation, and now have lost communication. What do you do? 2.	Transitioning to Final on a PAR, what info do you receive? 3.	You are shooting a practice approach at your destination: a PAR at or above mins, but not below 200-_. Is the pilot in violation of OPNAV? 4.	You are at an airport with no Flight Ops. FSS, or Tower. Can you take off and file a passenger manifest with FSS by radio? 5.	You are holding at an IAF which is a navaid for a Procedure Turn approach. When cleared for the approach, how does the pilot proceed with the approach? 6.	Inbound course is the same as final course. 7.	How many minutes prior to a holding fix does the pilot have to adjust his airspeed? 8.	Atlanta Center tells you âand contact Jax Center when at Bugg" What do you do? 9.	You are talking to Denver Center and are handed off to Salt Lake City Center. How would you contact them? 10.	Which NDB has the highest power output? H, L, HH, MH 11.	"Navy 1E123, contact Jax Center at		Fix/Time.â When do you switch channels? 12.	Going into Beaufort MCAS, can you expect to do a PAR between 1200Z and 1700Z? 13.	DME of arc is 15. You are 45 radials from FAF. What is the distance? 14.	TACAN point-to-point course from 360R/5 nm to 270R/5 nm. 15.	If given an approach clearance enroute, what is the lowest altitude you may descent to? 16.	May Navy and Marine aircraft buy non-contract fuel at an alternate? 17.	May Navy and Marine aircraft takeoff and land at civil airfields with no military tenant? 18.	How many helipads are at Beaufort JIGS? (What is Beaufort JIGS?) 19.	May a helicopter exceed 500 feet in an ATA? 20.	During an ASR approach, what type of information is provided? 21.	If the RMI fails, what will the ADF provide?. 22.	Enroute to a destination airport with no FSS, Tower, or other means to close out the flight plan on deck, what do you do? 23.	Off airways, to what distance can a TACAN station be received? 24.	After takeoff, Metro advises of a WW WX bulletin is in effect between you and your destination. Can you continue flight? 25.	When should the Transponder be switched to ALT? 26.	Lost Comms procedures should be assumed if there is no voice contact with controller after ___ seconds on final of a PAR or ____ seconds on final of a ASR. 27.	What is the maximum distance between TACAN station on airways? 28.	The tail of the needle on VOR represents what? 29.	In absence of assigned route, or a route that ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance, what would you do if you were lost comm after receiving an expected route to fly at time 15? 30.	Minimum WX for a flight plan approach to CAS ILS Rwy 11? 31.	If you are a dual piloted aircraft and shoot the Eglin ILS 19 approach, what are the lowest WX mins you can accept? 32.	On initial contact with Approach control, should pilot advise of ATIS information? 33.	Is controller required to give ATIS info when ATIS is being broadcast? 34.	When on a PAR approach, the controller will issue what prior to FAC? 35.	When shooting a No-gyro PAR, when should you initiate your turn? 36.	For a standard Instrument Rated single Pilot. Absolute WX mins for takeoff are what? 37.	Victor airways encompass what altitudes? 38.	Helicopters outside controlled airspace may operate with less than ____ mile visibility at or below ____, provided that they are at speeds allowing the pilot adequate opportunity to see other traffic and maintain obstacle   clearance. 39.	The approach WX mins are 500 - 1. What can this be reduced to? 40.	Which transmissions must you acknowledge on GCA final? 41.	Victor airways are ___ nm wide. 42.	Clearance to land may ONLY be given by? 43.	Where are NOTAMs decoded? 44.	Both ends of a direct route are mandatory reporting points. 45.	A MSA gives ____ feet of obstruction clearance within ____ nm of reference point 46.	Which will increase the rate of descent on a PAR: Headwind or Tailwind? 47.	Feeder routes provide ____ sm either side of centerline for obstruction clearance. 48.	VFR Mins? 49. 	Can you use an H class NAVAID over FL 180? 50.	ATIS broadcasts will include WX and visibility information whenever WX is below. 51.	HAT applies to TACAN, ILS, PAR, ASR, Straight in how? 52.	Maintenance schedule of NAVAIDS is contained where? 53.	Victor Airways are ____ nm wide and expand ___ nm each	nm ____ after 51 nm: 54.	What is the minimum WX for multi-piloted RWY 22L at Shaw AFB? 55.	What is the maximum holding airspeed for helicopters? 56.	What do you do if Lost Comms when holding? 57.	What does the barometric altimeter read at TCH? 58.	All helicopter operating in a Group 1 TCA under 1000' with prior ____ permission from controlling authority needs only a radio. 59.	When a tower is not in operation, is there a control zone in effect? 60.	Ceiling is what? MSL or AGL 61.	Can you be given clearance for a "contact approachâ without requesting it? 62.	What is the usable range of a Class L NAVAID? 63.	What is MEA to CAE? 64.	What type of lighting system is at McTire (MMT)? 65.	(Airport Elevation and Cruise Altitude)/2 = ? 66.	While circling to land, you lose visual reference. What do you do? 67.	When do you turn on position lights? (INAV WB 1-19) 68.	If an approach is VOR/DME, can you start with TACAN only? 69.	VFR semicircular rules start at ___feet AGL. 70.	When is Troy open? 71.	At Maxwell AFB, RWY 33 (V) means? 72.	You must stay at 500â in control zone. 73.	When should you contact Maxwell for a practice approach? 74.	Who is the only person required on a DD-1753 75.	TACAN Point-to-Point 165R/15 nm to 270R/20 nm 76.	If being vectored through FAC, you must ask why if not told. 77.	Which of the following voice reports is not required in Radar Contact. 78.	How wide is an airway 64 am from a NAVAID? 79.	Is an ADF accurate in a turn? 80.	Is ADF line of sight? 81.	ADF must be in	mode to work in UHF. 82.	Following takeoff from RWY "X" at airport "Y" to what altitude do you fly? 83.	Format for initial contact with Jax App.? 84.	On a PAR, when do you execute Missed Approach? 85.	Enroute on Airways, you experience Lost Comm. What altitude do you fly?, 86.	ATC will clear all traffic at an airport for ___ minutes after your ETA in event of Lost Comms. 87.	All helicopters are Category ___ Aircraft. 88.	Straight-in mins are shown and allowed when FAC is within ___ of runway heading. 89.	What must you do to be VFR-on-top? 90.	Correct ETA if in excess of 	 minutes. 91.	Circling MDA gives you how Many feet clearance? 92.	Decipher QNNAF. 93.	ADF reception is best when the antenna is perpendicular or parallel to NDB Signal? 94.	If you land at a civilian airport, who should you give the passenger manifest to? 95.	When can you request a "contact Approachâ? 96.	What MSA does a MOCA provide? 97.	What is the control zone time for the Greer ADF (Spartenville)? 98.	What are RVFAC designed to do? 99.	On PT Approach, when can you leave PT altitude and descend to the FAF altitude? 100.	Does a straight in approach use straight in mins.? 101.	What is TCH at CAE (Columbia SC) ILS RWY 117 102.	Can more than one aircraft talk on a discrete frequency? 103.	How far must aircraft have separation from one another? 104.	Minimum weather for a flight plan approach CAB Columbia SC ILS RWY 11? 105.	Do you include delays in ETE? 106.	What are the night planning alternate approach altitudes For an IFR plan? 107.	When do you not have to execute the PT part of a PT approach? 108.	What does a T in an upside down triangle mean? 109.	What does an A in a triangle mean? 110.	What does an A in a triangle mean with a NA next to it? 111.	What does the transponder reference? 112.	What does HAT apply to? 113.	What do mandatory reporting points looks like? 114.	What should you plan your approach to? 115.	What is the TD code for the TH-57? 116.	What altitude are the aerodrome section? 117.	Who issues all IFR flight plans? 118.	Who controls all the approaches and departures? 119. 	Who handles all instrument enroute air traffic? 120.	What antenna eliminates 180Â° ambiguity? '''*c. Sensing'''
 * Proceed to the IAF, shoot the full approach (FIH and INAV 11-12)
 * a.	Lost Comm
 * b.	Wx
 * c.	Wx update
 * d. 	Nothing
 * NO; It's above weather mins (OPNAV 3710.7)
 * NO; OPNAV 3710.7 (You cannot file a passenger manifest with FSS by radio. Must leave it with a responsible person at the airport) (OPNAV 4.6.2 420,423)
 * Pilot can proceed straight in. PT is not required.
 * True
 * 3 minutes (AIM 5-3-7)
 * Remain on frequency in case of update; then at Bugg switch to Jax Center.
 * âSalt Lake city Center. Navy 8E123 at (altitude), over."
 * HH (2000 watts or more) (INAV 6-3) (IFR Supp A-26)
 * At that fix or time.
 * Yes; check NOTAM maintenance (Low Altitude FLIP in Radar Approach Min; No-NOTAM MP 1200-2000Z SATURDAY)
 * DME/60 = Distance of Arc/Number of radials of Arc; Distance of arc = 11 nm
 * 225 degrees Â±1
 * MEA
 * Yes: OPNAV 3710.7T, 4-3
 * Yes; OPNAV 3710.7T, 4-2 (exception helicopters can)
 * 1.	Flight official business
 * 2.	Terminated as an emergency
 * 3.	Ends at an alternate
 * 4.	Limited range of Aircraft necessary to complete mission.
 * 1 (Low Altitude FLIP) Beaufort MCAS has zero
 * No, not unless cleared by a control tower. (OPNAV 3710.7, 4-7)
 * Azimuth and range, no glideslope. (AIM Pilot/Controller Glossary)
 * Relative Bearing to station.
 * Close out the Flight plan with FSS 5 minutes prior to landing.
 * 40 nm - IFR SUP
 * not unless WW clears or you can go above it. (OPNAV 3710.7U 4-8 4.8.4.5)
 * Just prior to taking the duty runway. GP 5-7
 * 5 and 15 (FIH A-7)
 * 80 nm B-2 FIH
 * The radial you are on.
 * Fly expected route at time 15, hold at clearance limit at MEA or ALT expected whichever is higher. (FIH A-6&7)
 * 200 - 1/2 (need 400 - 1 to file)
 * 200 - 1/4(1200 RVR)(400-1 to file) (Approach Plate & OPNAV 3710.7T 4-8 & 5-15)
 * Yes.
 * No.
 * Missed Approach Instructions
 * Immediately upon receipt of instructions (AIM 5.4.11 RADAR APPROACHES)
 * 300 - 1 if a non-precision approach compatible with installed and operable equipment is available for the landing runway in use, 200 â 1/2 if a precision approach is available. (OPNAV 3710.7T 5-19)
 * 1200 feet AGL to 18000 feet MSL (not FL 180) (AIM 5-3-4) (GP 3-50)
 * 1 and 1200 AGL (OPNAV 3710.7U, 5-26)
 * 500-1/2 (single or dual piloted)
 * None.
 * 8 FIH B-2
 * Tower
 * GP chapter 2 (FIH, Section F)
 * True.
 * 1000 and 25 (AIM Pilot/Controller Glossary)
 * Tailwind. A Tailwind will increase your groundspeed while the rate of descent remains unchanged, decreasing the angle of the Glide Slope.  Therefore, an increase in the rate of descent will be required to remain on Glide Slope for the PAR (same for ILS).
 * 5 sm
 * 1000 and 3
 * Yes (INAV WB 3-5)
 * 5000 and 5
 * Height of or on MDA above highest RWY elevation touchdown zone in first 3000'
 * FLIP IFR SUP
 * 8, 2, and 13
 * 200 - 1/4 (100 - 1/4 plus 100' ceiling). Single-piloted - (200-1/2)
 * 90 knots (Table 10-1-1 AIM)
 * Leave holding pattern at such a time as to cross holding fix at the EFC. You cannot lengthen the legs beyond what was specified in the holding clearance (FIH A-6 )
 * TIME + TCH = Bar alt
 * True
 * No (maybe, look up control zone hours)
 * AGL
 * No (INAV WB 2-5 GP 2-13))
 * 15 nm (INAV VS 603)
 * 2100
 * 112 (SALS / SALSF (sequenced) FIH has Codes B-19 )
 * Average climb altitude
 * Execute a Missed Approach.
 * a.	30 minutes prior to sunset until 30 minutes after official sunrise.
 * b.	anytime when the prevailing visibility as seen from the cockpit is less than 3 statute miles
 * No
 * 3000
 * 1300 - 0500Z weekdays (1300 - 0400Z?)
 * VASI lights (FIH).
 * True, unless cleared otherwise
 * 5 minutes prior
 * Pilot in Command
 * 300Â°
 * True
 * a.	Missed Approach.
 * b.	Vacating assigned altitude when Cleared for approach.
 * c.	TAS changes by 5%/10 knots
 * d. 	FAF
 * 10 nm
 * No (called dip error)
 * No (over the Horizon)
 * ADF
 * Look in front of approach plates "IFR takeoff mins."
 * E PTA/R (Non-radar)- A/R (Radar)
 * (E PTA/R - Estimated Position/Time/Altitude/Request)
 * (A/R = Altitude/Request)
 * DH
 * The highest of the followings
 * a.	Last assigned
 * b .	MEA
 * c.	Expected in a further clearance (Flight Planned)
 * 30 minutes
 * A
 * 30Â° (GP 2-43)
 * Request it be VFR-on-Top and use VFR semi circular cruising rules (GP 5-17).
 * 3
 * 300 AGL obstacle clearance
 * TACAN FLT checked & found reliable (NOTAM codes is GP 2-53 thru 2-57)
 * Parallel
 * Any responsible person
 * when clear of clouds and request SVFR + 1 mile visibility at the airport
 * 1000 and 25 nm (2000' mountainous) Altitude for emergency only, does not guarantee navigational signal reliability.
 * Continuous
 * Put you on FAC prior to the FAF
 * When established on FAC
 * Not necessarily, not unless the FAC is within 30Â° of the RWY alignment.
 * 55
 * Yes, discrete frequencies are for a single purpose, but not necessarily a single aircraft.
 * When under radar separation at the same altitude a minimum of ____ separation between aircraft within _____ of an antenna site and separation _____
 * 200 - 1/2 (400 - 1 needed to file)
 * No, but do include them in void times. Lost Comm you would proceed without delays.
 * Non-precision approaches add 300 - 1 to WX mins.
 * ILS add 200-1/2 to WX mins.
 * Only dual piloted or aircraft with two (2) tranceivers may use PAR +200-1/2
 * 1.	Cleared for the approach inbound on FAC
 * 2.	Cleared out of holding & inbound on the holding course which is the same as the FAC.
 * 3. 	RVFAC
 * 1.	The takeoff mins. are not standard, use OPNAV takeoff mins. anyway.
 * 2.	Airport may have departure procedure published to assist pilots in IFR flight in avoiding obstructions during the climb to the Enroute altitude.
 * Other than standard alternate minimums apply for Assay & civilian. Use OPNAV standards.
 * IFR mins. not authorized for alternate use due to unmonitored facility or absence of WX reporting facility. Applies to all pilots.
 * 29.92 Standard datum plane
 * Straight in and PAR approaches
 * Solid triangle and at the beginning and end of a direct leg.
 * The field not the MAP
 * B06/A
 * MSL
 * ATC
 * APC (Terminal Air Traffic Control)
 * ARTCC (Center)
 * a. 	BFO
 * b . 	Loop

121.	Your CDI has 090 dialed in and you are north of the 270 radial heading 170. What does the CDI look like? 122.	What is the minimum WX for Shaw AFB RWY 22L PAR if multi-piloted? 123.	Must visual approaches be assigned? 124.	When shooting a PAR the controller will issue what prior to the FAC? 125.	In your flight plan you request an altitude of 5000. ATC clears you to 4000 Enroute you lose Comms. At the next fix, your MEA is 6000 so you climb up to 6000. At a following fix, your MEA is 3000. What altitude do you go to? 126.	With a VOR/DME approach RAY 9 at Barton Muni, can yon shoot the approach with a TACAN? 127.	While being radar vectored on departure, you lose comms, you should do what; 128.	On a VOR/DME NAVAID, you have only TACAN, what information, if any, will you receive? 129.	VFR traffic should contact Montgomery within how many miles of the VORTAC? 130.	A NAVAID Class Code (L) can normally be received for how many miles up to 18000 MSL? 131.	Is TACAN interference free up tp 18000 MSL line of sight (40 nm)? 132.	Single piloted IFR visibility mins. can only go down to 	. 133	What are your takeoff mins. at Cairns AAF, with RWY 36 in use? 134.	What is your maximum altitude when entering the control zone at MCAS Beaufort? 135.	In an ASR approach, recommended altitudes are based upon what? 136.	Can the flight schedule be a flight plan? 137.	What are the absolute minimums for a helicopter dual/single? 138.	Where do you hold when it is not published. 139.	If an approach minimum is 500 -1, what can it be reduced to? 140.	What are the standard instrument pilot absolute takeoff minimums? 141.	Which RWY is used for IFR use? 142.	If in holding over a fix and cleared to depart the fix and are not cleared for the approach, may you descend?
 * Needle right of center with a 'TO' flag.
 * 200 - 1/4
 * Yes
 * MAP instructions. Lost comms not required to be given.
 * 4000
 * No
 * Proceed to the IAF, execute the Approach
 * DME
 * 25 nm
 * 40 nm (IFR supplement)
 * Yes
 * _ nm
 * 200 - 3/4
 * 800'
 * 300'/mile rate of descent
 * Yes (OPNAV 3710.7)
 * 200 - 1/4 to execute an approach, 200 - 1/2 to accept an approach clearance.
 * On the procedure turn side.
 * Multi 500 1/2 Single
 * 500 - l/2 on any straight in
 * 200 - 1/2 (2400 MM) with PAR MY is use. In no case less than 200 - 1/2, 300 - 1 without PAR
 * The longest with the lowest mins. and most instrument approaches.
 * No, you may only descend when cleared for the approach.

=Conner Gouge= INAV TEST REVIEW QUESTIONS

THE FOLLOWING PUBLICATIONS MAY BE USED WITH THIS REVIEW.
 * a.	OPNAVINST 3710.7 series
 * b.	General Planning (GP)
 * c.	Area Planning (AP-1)
 * d.	IFR Supplement, dated 23 Apr 98
 * e.	Low Altitude Approach Procedures, Volumes 11 and 12, dated 23 Apr 98
 * f.	FRR Programmed Texts
 * g.	IFR Enroute Low Altitude Chart, dated 23 Apr 98

CHAPTER ONE REVIEW QUESTIONS
OPNAV 3710.7 / FAR PART 91

1.	Which sub-agency of the FAA is responsible for providing all aircraft with in-flight radio assistance such as weather broadcasts, VFR position reports and accepting amended flight plans? 2.	In the absence of direct orders from higher authority, the responsibility for starting or continuing a mission with respect to weather or any other condition affecting safety of the aircraft rests with the pilot in command. 3. 	When the engine of a helicopter is started, the controls should be manned by a qualified _____. Commanding Officers may authorize certain specifically qualified personnel, other than pilots, to ground test helicopters when a pilot is not available. Rotors shall not be engaged except by a qualified	_______. 4.	OPNAVINST 3710.7's general rule regarding inflatable life preservers is that they should be worn anytime during the flight when there is a sufficient risk of a water landing. 5.	For the execution of a straight-in landing, the visibility required for helicopters may be reduced by one-half that of Category-A aircraft, but in no case may it be reduced to less than one-half mile or 2,400 feet RVR for single-piloted aircraft. 6.	In the case of major accidents, natural disasters, or events of high public interest, temporary flight restrictions may be placed in effect. Normally, the exact dimensions of this airspace will be included in the 7.	According to OPNAVINST 3710.7, commercial and civil aircraft shall be avoided by at least _____ feet vertically or ______ mile(s) laterally. 8.	Generally Class "D" Airspace is composed of a _____ and controls aircraft up to ____ with horizontal limits as needed. 9.	Helicopter flights within Class "D" Airspace shall be in accordance with the local flight rules. Where no guidance is provided, pilots shall not exceed____ AGL unless specifically cleared by ____ the tower or other control agency. 10. No person may operate an aircraft within Class "B" Airspace unless that person has received _____ from ATC prior to operation.
 * a. 	"Pensacola Metro"
 * b. 	"Jacksonville Center"
 * c. 	"Orlando Approach Control"
 * d. 	"Dothan Radio"
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False
 * a. 	pilot . . . pilot
 * b. 	helicopter pilot . . . helicopter pilot
 * c. 	pilot . . . mechanic
 * d.	mechanic . . . pilot
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False
 * a. 	VFR Supplement.
 * b. 	IFR Supplement
 * c. 	NOTAMs.
 * d. 	AP-1A/2A/3A.
 * a. 	500 . . . 1
 * b. 	500 . . . 2
 * c. 	1,000 . . . 1
 * d. 	1,000 . . . 2
 * a. 	Control Tower . . . 2500 AGL
 * b. 	Control Tower . . . 2500 MSL
 * c. 	Control Tower . . . 3000 AGL
 * d.	Control Tower . . . 3000 MSL
 * a. 	200
 * b. 	500
 * c. 	1,000
 * d. 	1,200

11.	For a turbine-powered helicopter, OPNAVINST 3710.7 states that the planned reserve fuel after final landing at the destination or alternate, if required, shall not be less than that fuel required for 20 minutes of flight at a fuel consumption based on 12. For a standard card pilot departing North Myrtle Beach Rwy 23 and all equipment is up and operating, the absolute lowest takeoff weather minimums are 13.	According to OPNAVINST 3710.7, the TH-57C meets the requirements of a multipiloted aircraft when being flown by two pilots, both meeting the requirements of the TH-57C NATOPS Manual. 14.	With reported weather of 200 feet broken and 3 miles visibility, may a single-piloted helicopter depart NAS Meridian, Mississippi, on duty runway 19? If yes, could the departure be VFR? 15.	What is the absolute lowest weather minimum for a single-piloted helicopter executing a precision (PAR, ILS) approach? 16.	When selecting a suitable alternate, radar (PAR/ASR) approach minimums at the alternate may NOT be used by pilots flying 17.	Alternate weather requirements are based on the pilot's best judgment as to the runway that will be in use upon arrival at the destination and alternate. 18.	Assume that you are flying in a single-piloted TH-57C and your destination is Dobbins ARB, Georgia. The forecast winds at Dobbins at your planned ETA are 270/15. What are your lowest approach minimums for the execution of an approach at Dobbins ARB? 19.	In reference to question 18, Dobbins ARB forecast weather at your planned ETA (t 1 hour) is 4 BKN 10 OVC 1R. To file an IFR flight plan to Dobbins, you must select a suitable alternate whose forecast is at least 20.	You are planning an IFR flight to NAS Pensacola in a single-piloted helicopter. Pensacola's forecast weather at your planned ETA (Â±1 hour) is 3 BKN 10 OVC 1, wind 200/15. For flight planning purposes, what are your lowest approach minimums at NAS Pensacola? 21.	In reference to question 20, and in accordance with OPNAVINST 3710.7, if NAS South Whiting is your planned alternate, what must NAS Whiting Field be forecasting before you can file an IFR flight to NAS Pensacola? 22.	Your destination is Tyndall AFB, Florida, and you are flying a single-piloted helicopter. The weather at Tyndall at your planned ETA (Â± 1 hour) is 3 BKN 10 OVC 2R. If Moody AFB, Georgia, is the only available alternate, what is the minimum weather Moody may be forecasting for you to file an IFR flight plan to Tyndall AFB? 23.	Assume that you are planning a flight to NAS Whiting Field North in a TH-57 from NAS New Orleans with an ETE of 1+45 minutes and your TH-57 has 2+30 minutes of fuel on board. If Whiting is forecasting 2 BKN10 OVC 2R at your planned ETA (Â± 1 hour) and all the suitable alternates within 100 NM of Whiting are lower, can you file an IFR flight plan to Whiting Field? 24.	Assume you are flying a TH-57C and your final destination is NAS North Whiting Field. Pensacola Approach Control has cleared you for North Whiting TACAN Rwy 14 approach and reports Whiting weather is 2 BKN 3H. May you accept the approach clearance and commence the approach? 25.	Outside of controlled airspace, a helicopter may be operated below 1,200 feet AGL when the visibility is less than 1 statute mile. 26.	A helicopter is operating under special VFR clearance in Class "E" Airspace. Which of the following requirements does not apply? 27.	VFR semicircular cruising rules begin at 28. What are FSS's two standard frequencies? 29. 	A TH-57C is required to have an operable clock with a sweep second hand for instrument flight. 30.	You are flying a TH-57C single-piloted, and your destination is forecasting at or above your lowest approach mins but below 3,000'/3 mi. vis. With Keesler AFB as your alternate, what are the lowest acceptable weather mins for filing purposes? 31.	Within 12 months of an instrument evaluation, a pilot is required to have a minimum of ____	hours of instrument flight and ____ 	approaches, (___ precision and  ____ nonprecision).
 * a. 	maximum endurance operation at normal cruise altitude.
 * b. 	maximum endurance operation at 10,000 feet.
 * c. 	operation at planned flight altitude.
 * d. 	reserve fuel not required for a VFR flight.
 * a. 	200 . . . _
 * b. 	200 . . . _
 * c. 	300 . . . _
 * d. 	300 . . . 1
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False
 * a. 	No . . . No
 * b. 	Yes . . . Yes
 * c. 	No . . . Yes
 * d.	Yes . . . No
 * a. 	200 . . . _ or 1.200 RVR
 * b. 	200 . . . _ or 2,400 RVR
 * c. 	Both a. and b. above, whichever is higher
 * d. 	33 . . .1
 * a. 	single-piloted aircraft.
 * b. 	multipiloted aircraft.
 * c. 	aircraft with one operable UHF/VHF transceiver.
 * d. 	both a. and c.
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False
 * a. 	100 . . . _
 * b. 	200... _
 * c. 	200 . . . _
 * d. 	300 ... _
 * a. 	3,000 ... 3
 * b. 	nonprecision approach published minimums plus 300 . . . 1.
 * c. 	PAR approach published minimums plus 200 . . . _.
 * d. 	1,000 . . . 1.
 * a. 	200 . . . _
 * b. 	200 . . . _
 * c. 	400 . . . _
 * d. 	400 . . . _
 * a. 	300 . . . _
 * b. 	300 . . . _
 * c. 	600 . . . 1
 * d.	400 . . . 1 _
 * a. 	400 . . . _
 * b. 	400 . . . 1
 * c. 	700 . . . 1 _
 * d. 	3,000 . . . 3
 * a. 	Yes
 * b. 	No
 * a. 	Yes
 * b. 	No
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False
 * a. 	Pilot and aircraft must be certified for instrument flight.
 * b. 	Remain 500' below clouds.
 * c. 	Authorization from ATC in Class "E" Airspace
 * d. 	Maintain 1 mile visibility unless waived for operational necessity.
 * a. 	1,000 feet MSL.
 * b. 	2,000 feet AGL.
 * c. 	3,000 feet MSL.
 * d.	3,000 feet AGL.
 * a. 	255.4 . . . 272.2
 * b. 	122.2 . . . 255.4
 * c. 	243.0 . . . 255.2
 * d.	121.5 . . . 122.1
 * a. 	True
 * b.	False
 * a. 	700 . . . 1 _
 * b. 	800 . . . 2
 * c. 	500 . . . 1 _
 * d. 	300 . . . _

32. 	Helicopter visibility minima may be reduced to 	of the published minima, but no lower than _____ for multipiloted and	_____ for single-piloted.

CHAPTER ONE ANSWERS AND REFRENCES

 * 1. 	d.	GP
 * 2. 	a.	3710
 * 3. 	b.	3710
 * 4. 	a.	3710
 * 5. 	b. 	3710 (mins are 1/4 see paragraph 5.3.4.1)
 * 6. 	c.	FAR 91
 * 7. 	a.	3710
 * 8. 	a.	(GP)
 * 9. 	b.	3710
 * 10. 	clearance	(AP-1)
 * 11. 	c.	3710
 * 12. 	c.	3710
 * 13. 	a.	3710
 * 14. 	b.	APP VOLS/3710
 * 15. 	b.	3710
 * 16. 	d.	3710
 * 17.	a.	3710
 * 18.	b.	3710/APP VOLS (600-1) look at the plate circling mins
 * 19.	b.	3710
 * 20.	b.	3710
 * 21.	d.	APP VOLS
 * 22. 	b.	APP VOLS
 * 23.	b.	3710
 * 24.	b.	3710
 * 25.	a.	3710
 * 26.	b.	3710/FAR
 * 27.	d.	FAR
 * 28.	b.	IFR Low Alt Chart
 * 29.	a.	3710
 * 30.	c.	APP VOLS
 * 31.	12, 18, 12, 6	3710
 * 32.	_, _ mile or 1200 RVR_ mile or 2400 RVR	3710

CHAPTER TWO REVIEW QUESTIONS
FLIGHT PLANNING

1.	The FLIP that depicts instrument approach procedures such as VOR or TACAN approaches is 2.	Radar approach minima information is contained in 3.	ILS approaches are depicted in 4.	An ATIS broadcast will include weather and _____ visibility whenever the reported ceiling is below ____ feet and visibility less than ____ miles. 5.	To relieve frequency congestion, pilots are expected to inform the controller of receipt of ATIS information. 6.	An Approach Control can serve more than one airfield. 7.	If Approach Control services are not provided at the destination airport, the controller will issue an approach clearance. 8.	If Approach Control services are provided at the destination airport, the Center controller will issue a clearance to 9.	Advance approach information will not be provided when ATIS is in operation. 10.	When the controller says "CLEARED FOR APPROACH," the pilot may select any approach (VOR, GPS, TACAN, ILS, ADF) published for that location. 11.	A clearance for a VOR approach to a pilot operating on an IFR flight plan includes a landing priority over VFR traffic. 12.	The pilot may leave the holding pattern to intercept the final approach course, upon receipt of the approach clearance. 13.	When holding at an intersection fix from which straight-in approaches are being conducted, clearances will usually specify the time of departure from the fix (EFC). 14.	The holding pattern, to lose excessive initial approach course altitude, if none is depicted, should be established on the approach course, making turns on the ____ side of the approach course. 15.	After radar vectors have established the aircraft inbound on the approach course, the pilot can expect a clearance for a straight-in approach. 16.	When the aircraft has been radar vectored to a final approach course, the pilot shall not execute a procedure turn. 17. 	The term "Decision Height" applies only to precision approaches. 18. 	Reading below "category" on an approach plate S-ILS-27 means
 * a. 	IFR Supplement.
 * b. 	VFR Supplement.
 * c. 	General Planning (GP).
 * d. 	Instrument Approach Procedures.
 * a. 	IFR Supplement
 * b. 	VFR Supplement
 * c. 	General Planning (GP)
 * d. 	Instrument Approach Procedures.
 * a. 	Instrument Approach Procedures.
 * b. 	IFR Supplement.
 * c. 	VFR Supplement.
 * d. 	Area Planning (AP).
 * a. 	5,000 . . . 5
 * b. 	4,000 . . . 4
 * c. 	3,000 . . . 3
 * d.	1,000 . . . 3
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False
 * a. 	tower
 * b. 	ARTCC
 * c. 	FSS
 * d. 	Ground Control
 * a. 	land.
 * b. 	commence the approach, and contact FSS.
 * c. 	contact Approach Control.
 * d. 	contact tower.
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False
 * a. 	holding pattern
 * b. 	procedure turn
 * c. 	final approach fix
 * d. 	airfield
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False
 * a. 	precision approach to ILS, descend from 2,700 feet.
 * b. 	precision straight-in to runway 27.
 * c. 	nonprecision straight-in to runway 27.
 * d. 	precision straight-in to runway 9.

19. Visibility (RVR) minimums are always identical for precision and nonprecision approaches.
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False

20. The published airport elevation is a measurement of
 * a. tower height.
 * b. lowest point of usable runway.
 * c. highest point of usable runway.
 * d. mean height of usable runway.

21. An RVR value of 40 depicted on a FLIP terminal plate represents
 * a. 	400 feet.
 * b. 	4,000 feet.
 * c. 	.40 miles.
 * d. 	None of the above

22.	When both an RVR value and a prevailing visibility value (in parenthesis) is shown, the one to be used for determining if the field is above the minimums for the type of approach contemplated is
 * a. 	RVR.
 * b. 	prevailing visibility.
 * c. 	either one.
 * d. 	Neither of these factors should be used.

23.	Runway Visual Range is
 * a. slant range.
 * b. horizontal range.
 * c. distance from threshold to point of intended touchdown.
 * d. distance from which the runway is visible.

24.	A Navy pilot of a multipiloted aircraft may request and receive an approach clearance from a controller when the weather is below published minimums.
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False

25.	FAA controllers are NOT required to inform Navy pilots that the weather is below approach minimums.
 * a. 	True
 * b. 	False

26.	After reported weather is below published landing minimums for the approach to be conducted, an approach shall not be commenced in multipiloted aircraft unless

a. the FAA supervisor approves it. b. the aircraft has the capability to proceed to alternate. c. the Navy pilot specifically requests it. d. There are no exceptions.

27.	Whenever the criteria used to establish straight-in landing minimums cannot be met, only circling landing minimums will be shown on the chart.

a. 	True	b. False

28.	When only circling minimums are possible, the name of the approach procedures will not include a runway reference.

a. 	True	b. False

29.	When you are maneuvering at the circling minimums, you need NOT be in constant visual reference with the surface.

a. 	True	b. False

30.	When a runway reference is included in the name of an approach procedure, you can expect to find straight-in landing minimums on the approach plate.

a. 	True	b. False

31.	Straight-in landing minimums are shown on the FLIP approach plate when the final approach course of the approach procedure is within 	degrees of the runway alignment.

a. 	15	c. 25 b. 	20	d. 30

32. When cleared for a straight-in approach, you should always use straight-in landing minimums.

a. 	True	b. False

33.	Whether you are departing a civil or a military airport a      symbol indicates your takeoff minimums are published in the IFR Takeoff Minimums Section of the Instrument Approach Procedures.

a. 	True	b. False

34.	Circling landing minimums provide a minimum of	feet obstruction clearance in the "circling approach area."

a. 	200	c. 350 b. 	300	d. 400

35.	Controllers may clear an aircraft for a		approach whether or not the pilot requests it.

a. 	contact	c. blind b. 	visual	d. Special VFR

36. Controllers may clear an aircraft for a contact approach whether or not the pilot requests it.

a. 	True	b. False

37.	In order to request a contact approach on an IFR flight plan, pilots must be clear of clouds and have 	flight visibility.

a. 	2,000 feet	c. 1,000 feet b. 	1 mile	d. 3 miles

38.	A single-piloted aircraft may request a practice approach at his destination if the weather is above his lowest approach minimums.

a. 	True	b. False

39. 	Who handles flight following for local flights?

40. 	What agency of FAR handles flight following?

41. 	How long is your weather briefing good?

42. 	What flights require a weather briefing?

43. 	Who is responsible for closing your flight plan?

44. 	If you change your IFR flight plan in the air, what must you do?

45.	Who would you contact for a weather briefing if departing a civilian airfield?

46. 	How could you file your flight plan at a civilian airport with no tower and the FSS not at the field?

47. 	With whom would you leave a copy of your clearance and manifest at a civilian airport?

48. 	If you don't close out your flight plan, what could happen?

49. 	What penalty could you receive if you don't close out your flight plan?

50. 	Which publication lists requirements for flight plan filing?

51. 	What are the two exceptions OPNAVINST 3710.7 waives requiring filing of a flight plan?

52. 	Name the five (5) items that constitute a flight plan as defined by OPNAVINST 3710.7.

53. 	What does OPNAVINST 3710.7 say about filing of flight plans?

54. 	When on a flight plan which includes RNAV, prohibited and restricted airspace must be avoided by

55. 	A charted visual approach is an instrument approach.

a. 	True 	b. False 1.	d. 26. 	b.

2.	d. 27. 	a.

3.	a. 28. 	a.

4.	a. 29. 	b.

5.	a. 30. 	a.

6.	a. 31. 	d.

7.	b. 32. 	b.

8.	c. 33. 	b.

9.	a. 34. 	b.

10. 	a.	35. b.

11. 	b.	36. b.

12. 	a.	37. b.

13. 	a.	38. a.

14. 	b.	39. Tower

15. 	a.	40. FSS

16. 	a.	41. 30 minutes after ETD

17. 	a.	42. All

18. 	b.	43. Pilot in command or formation leader

19. 	b.	44. Notify FSS

20. 	c.	45. FSS

21. 	b.	46. Call FSS by phone or radio

22. 	a.	47. FSS or airport manager

23. 	b.	48. Launch SAR

24. 	a.	49. Flight violation

25. 	a.	50. OPNAVINST 3710.7

51.	Student training (CNATRA); 	52. DD-175, Daily Flight Schedule, FAA Flight Plan, urgent military necessity. ICAO Flight Plan, flight plan specified by local authorities when departing from points outside 53.	IFR flight plans shall be filed to the 		CONUS. maximum extent possible. 54.	3 NM	55. b. CHAPTER THREE REVIEW QUESTIONS

1.	When a pilot is unable to receive the identifier (either code or voice) from a navaid, he/she can assume

a. 	normal VOR operations, if his/her instruments are reacting normally to the signal. b. 	normal VOR operations unless the alarm flag is showing on his/her deviation indicator. c. 	abnormal VOR operation -- a warning that the signal may be unreliable. d. 	that the Flight Service Station is transmitting voice on UHF frequency.

2.	A station classed as a BVORTAC means that scheduled weather broadcasts are made on both the VOR and TACAN portions of the VORTAC.

a. 	True	b. False

3.	A station classed as VORTACW means that no voice is available on the VOR portion of the VORTAC.

a. 	True	b. False

4.	Navaids are normally operated only when weather conditions are less than VFR.

a. 	True	b. False

5.	The "floor" of a low-altitude airway is usually 1,200 feet above the surface.

a. 	True	b. False

6.	Low-altitude airways extend up to, but do not include 18,000 feet MSL.

a. 	True	b. False

7.	Jet airways extend from Flight Level 180 to Flight Level 450.

a. 	True	b. False

8.	Jet airways are supported by navaids classed as (L) such as (L) VORTAC.

a. 	True	b. False

9.	While in the en route phase of flight, pilots are required to read back all altimeter settings.

a. 	True	b. False

10.	While in the terminal phase of flight, pilots are NOT required to read altimeter settings received from Approach Control.

a. 	True	b. False

11.	Use of a navaid outside the intended service (volume) may result in unreliable indications in the aircraft.

a. 	True	b. False

12. A navaid classed as MH NDB has a greater power output than a navaid classed as H NDB.

a. 	True	b. False

13.The operational limitations established on an (L) VORTAC are 40 NM up to FL180.

a. 	True	b. False

14.	A pilot is proceeding on airways from "A" to "B." He/she should tune the next station, "B," on his VOR receiver

a.	immediately after passing "A. " b.	as soon as the alarm flag on his deviation indicator comes into view (receiver tuned to "A"). c.	anywhere between "A" and "B." d.	at the VORIVORTAC changeover symbol; if one is not indicated, at the halfway point between "A" and "B. "

15. A radial is defined as a

a. true course from a TACAN/VOR. b. 	true course to a TACAN/VOR. c. 	magnetic bearing from a TACAN/VOR. d. 	magnetic course to a TACAN/VOR.

16. TACAN stations transmit a three-letter identifier in Morse code approximately once every

a. 	two minutes. c. 	15 seconds. b. 	30 seconds. d. 	few seconds (continuously).

17.	Assuming that an aircraft has ample altitude and an unobstructed line-of-sight to a TACAN station, the maximum range for DME is how many miles?

a. 	95	c. 199 b. 	155	d. 295

18. When an aircraft is within the TACAN cone of confusion, which of the following is FALSE?

a. Bearing information will be received. b. Distance information will be received. c. The identifier signal will be received. d. Both the identifier signal and distance information will be received.

19. TACAN installations are usually located on civil airports rather than military airports.

a. 	True	b. False

20. When directly over a TACAN station at all altitudes, the DME should read "ZERO."

a. 	True	b. False

21. To receive a DME reading, the airborne equipment must be transmitting.

a. 	True	b. False

22. TACAN stations do NOT provide scheduled weather broadcasts.

a. 	True	b. False

23.	TACAN holding patterns are located some distance from the station because of the wide "cone of confusion. "

a. 	True	b. False

24.	The scheduled weather broadcast, if available, is made on both the VOR and TACAN portions of a VORTAC.

a. 	True	b. False

25.	The identifier signal for the TACAN portion of a VORTAC is transmitted continuously -- every few seconds.

a. 	True	b. False

26.	Which of the following may be received from a VORTAC station by an aircraft equipped with both VOR and TACAN equipment?

a. TACAN bearing, TACAN distance, VOR bearing b. TACAN distance only c. VOR bearing, TACAN distance d. TACAN bearing, VOR bearing, TACAN distance, VOR distance

27.	Which of the following services may be received from a VORTAC station by an aircraft equipped with TACAN equipment only?

a. 	TACAN bearing	c. Transcribed weather brief b. 	VOR distance	d. VOR distance

28.	Which of the following services may be received from a VOR/DME installation by an aircraft equipped with TACAN equipment only?

a. 	TACAN bearing	c. VOR bearing b. 	TACAN distance	d. VOR distance

29. VOR stands for 	.

30. The frequency range of the VOR is 	 to 	 MHz.

31. The low altitude airway system is based upon 	radials.

32.	Maximum error for a certified VOR ground check is plus or minus 	 degrees, and plus or minus 	 degrees for an airborne check.

33. A minimum of 	 satellites are always observable by a user anywhere on earth.

a. 	24	c. 10 b. 	12	d. 5

34. GPS accuracy with Standard Positioning Service may be off as much as	meters.

a. 	100	c. 300 b. 	200	d. 400

35. RAIM is not required to perform a GPS approach.

a. 	True	b. False

36.	In this phase, instrument approach procedures were retitled "or GPS." Ground-based NAVAID's are not required to be operational and associated aircraft avionics need not be installed, operational, turned on or monitored.

a. 	4	c. 2 b. 	3	d. 5

37.	With a basic "T" design, the length of an initial segment must be at least 	 NM for a Cat A aircraft.

a. 	3	c. 30 b. 	6	d. 5

38. The three areas for a standard TAA are

a. 	Alpha, Bravo and Charlie. c. 	Bow, Starboard and Port. b. 	Forward, Left and Right. d. 	Straight-in Right Base and Left Base.

39. The arc boundary associated with each area is 	NM.

a. 	3	c. 6 b. 	30	d. 5

40.	The military provides airfield specific GPS RAIM NOTAM's for nonprecision approach procedures at military airfields. They are issued as 	 series NOTAM's and may be obtained for up to hours from the time of request.

a. 	M, 24	c. N, 24 b. 	M, 3	d. N, 3

41.	Unless a specific time frame is requested, FAA briefers will provide RAIM information for a period of

a. 	24 hrs. c. 	1 hr prior to 1 hr after ETA. b. 	2 hrs prior to arrival. d. 	FAA briefers will not provide RAIM information.

42.	The pilot should ensure that the GPS receiver has sequenced to "Armed" prior to the Final Approach Waypoint.

a. 	True	b. False

43. If RAIM is not available, the NAV 1 cannot be used to execute an approach.

a. 	True	b. False

USE THE KLN-900 PILOT'S GUIDE FOR THE REMAINING QUESTIONS!

44. The KLN-900 can be used for precision approaches.

a. 	True	b. False

45. The data base must be updated every 	 days.

a. 	56	c. 30 b. 	90	d. 28

46. Airport identifiers must begin with the letter	in the continental United States.

a. 	K	c. U b. 	C	d. A

47. What are the numbers associated with the self-test page?

a. 	12.3 NM, OBS OUT 123, RMI 123 b. 	34.5 NM, OBS OUT 315, RMI 130 c. 	54.3 NM, OBS OUT 315, RMI 242 d. 	34.5 NM, OBS OUT 242, RMI 130

48.	The time to first fix may take up to 	 minutes.

a. 	6	c. 10 b. 	12	d. 5

49. The KLN-900 can select a NAVAID by its frequency.

a. 	True	b. False

50.	When using the KLN-900 as the primary en route navigation source, each dot on the CDI or HSI represents how many NM?

a. 	_ 	c. _ b. 	1	d. 4

51. To use the moving map display, you must use the 	 page.

a. 	Airport	c. Trip b. 	NAV 1	d. Super NAV 5

52. If the data base has a nonprecision approach for an airport, it will be on which page?

a. 	VOR	c. APT 8 b. 	NAV 1	d. SETUP 3

53. Whenever you receive a current altimeter setting, you should update the KLN-900 by using the button.

a. 	MSG	c. ENT b. 	UPT	d. ALT

54. How many flight plans can be stored and how many waypoints per flight plan?

a. 	25, 30	c. 30, 30 b. 	30, 25	d. 25, 25

55. What is the only active flight plan?

a. 	1	c. f b. 	a	d. 0

56. Which button would you push to create a user waypoint at your current location?

a. 	ENT	c. NRST b. 	OBS	d. SAVE

57. To hold while using the KLN-900, you must be in the	mode.

a. 	CDI	c. Leg b. 	OBS	d. Hold

58.	Transition to approach arm mode will occur automatically when the aircraft is within	NM of the airport and an approach is loaded in the flight plan.

a. 	6	c. 3 b. 	60	d. 30

59. How many approaches can be loaded into the active flight plan?

a. 	1	c. 3 b. 	2	d. As many as the user selects

60. All of the following conditions except, must be met for a transition to approach mode.

a. 	The aircraft is 2 NM from the FAF and the approach mode is armed. b. 	The LEG mode is selected. c. 	The heading of the aircraft is toward the FAF. d. 	The FAF or a co-located IAF/FAF is the active waypoint. e. 	The OBS mode is selected. f. 	The KLN-900 confirms that adequate integrity monitoring is available to complete the approach. g. 	RAIM is available at FAF and MAP.

61. When the KLN-900 transitions to the approach arm mode, the CDI scale factor will change to NM over the next 30 seconds and the external annunciator will indicate ARM.

a. 	5	c. 1 b. 	2	d. _

62. If you are receiving radar vectors, you should be in OBS mode.

a. 	True	b. False

63. What page will provide a means of RAIM prediction?

a. 	NAV 1	c. NAV 5 b. 	STA 1	d. STA 5

64. The data base contains all the information necessary to perform a SID/STAR.

a. 	True	b. False

65. After the MAP the KLN-900 will not automatically sequence to the next waypoint.

a. 	True	b. False

CHAPTER THREE REVIEW ANSWERS 1.	c. 34. 	c. 2.	b. 35. 	b. 3.	a. 36. 	b. 4.	b. 37. 	a. 5.	a. 38. 	d. 6.	a. 39. 	b. 7.	a. 40. 	a. 8.	b. 41. 	c. 9.	b. 42. 	b. 10. 	b.	43. b. 11. 	a.	44. b. 12. 	b.	45. d. 13. 	a.	46. a. 14. 	d.	47. b. 15. 	c.	48. b. 16. 	b.	49. b. 17. 	c.	50. b. 18. 	a.	51. d. 19. 	b.	52. c. 20. 	b.	53. d. 21. 	a.	54. a. 22. 	a.	55. d. 23. 	a.	56. d. 24. 	b.	57. b. 25. 	b.	58. d. 26. 	a.	59. a. 27. 	a.	60. e. 28. 	b.	61. c. 29. 	VHF OMNI-DIRECTIONAL RANGE	62. a. 30. 	108.0 - 117.95	63. 	d. 31. 	VOR	64. b. 32. 	4, 6	65. 	a. 33. 	d. CHAPTER FOUR REVIEW QUESTIONS

1.	What does the acronym TACAN stand for?

2. 	There are 	 X-band and 	 Y-band TACAN channels for a total of 	.

3.	The KNI-582 (RMI) is used to display radial, course, and heading information to the pilot. If a TACAN channel is tuned in to the NAV- 1 KNS-81, what needle on the RMI will indicate the TACAN radial?

4.	The normal interference-free reception range of a TACAN ground station when below 18,000 feet MSL is 	NM.

5.	To tune a TACAN channel on a KNS-81, after turning the equipment on, select 	 using the mode select knob. After selecting the desired TACAN channel with the data input knob, identify the station by 	. The distance measuring equipment displays will show, 	, , 	.

6.	When flying in the cone of confusion, the only reliable information will be 	.

7.	"Slant range" is the aircraft's actual distance over the ground from the station. (True/False)

8.	The most reliable means of determining TACAN station passage is 	.

9.	You have just received the following holding clearance: "Hold north on the Alexander VORTAC 160 radial/10 DME fix . . . " Is this a station-side or nonstation-side holding?

10.	In reference to question 11, what is the outbound holding course?

11. 	Your holding clearance reads "Hold southeast on the Monroe VORTAC 330 radial/10 DME fix..." At initial holding fix passage, you are headed 050 degrees. To enter holding, you would turn (right/left) to (heading).

12.	Your holding instructions read "Hold west on the lake Charles VORTAC 260 radial/15 DME fix . . ." At initial holding fix passage, your heading is 195 degrees. To enter holding you would turn (right/left) to 	(heading).

13.	Your holding clearance reads "Hold west on the Hayes VORTAC 070 radial/20 DME fix, 2-mile legs" On the outbound leg, the pilot would turn to intercept the inbound holding course at 	DME.

14.	You are presently 15 NM from the Fort Hayes VORTAC on the 060 radial and you have received clearance to fly to the 200 radial / 21 fix. Using the CR-2 computer, determine the course and distance between the two fixes.

15.	Your present position is on the 135 radial at 10 DME. What course would you fly to the 020 radial/20 DME fix?

16.	The first step in arcing is to turn the aircraft in the desired direction until the head of the RMI needle is exactly 	degrees from the aircraft's heading.

17.	When flying an arc, it is important to remember that when the head of the RMI needle is above the wingtip, the DME to the station should 	.

18.	The initial approach fix for a TACAN arcing approach is on the 160 radial at 15 DME and the final approach radial is 080 degrees. How many miles will you have to fly on the 15-mile arc?

19.	In reference to question 20, what is the average course between the 160/15 DME fix and the 080/15 DME fix?

20.	The VOR navigation receiver used in the TH-57C is the 	.

21.	The HSI is used by the	(pilot/copilot) to maintain the aircraft on the desired radial in the TH-57C, while the 	 (pilot/copilot) uses the CDI for the same purpose.

22.	To tune a VOR frequency on the KNS-81, use the data select knob to select the desired frequency. For navigating the airways, using the VOR, select	mode. Depressing the CHK on	the KNS-81 will display	and	on the KNS-81 panel if the VOR frequency is paired with a TACAN channel.

23.	In the VOR/RNV mode, the sensitivity of the HSI/CDI is	NM. In the VOR/RNV APR Mode, the sensitivity increases to	NM.

CHAPTER FOUR REVIEW ANSWERS

1.	Tactical Air Navigation

2.	126 . . . 126. . .252

3.	Double

4.	40

5.	TAC. . . pulling the ON/OFF switch and adjusting volume (ensuring the DME button on the audio panel is depressed). . . slant range from the station, ground speed, time-to-station

6.	slant range

7.	False

8.	minimum DME.

9.	station-side

10.	340

11.	right. . . 150 Â°

12.	teardrop right. . . 230

13.	18 DME

14.	217 . . . 34

15.	359 . . . 25

16.	090

17.	decrease

18.	20 NM

19.	030

20.	KNS-81

21.	pilot. . . copilot

22.	VOR. . . radial. . . distance

23. 5 . . . 1.25

CHAPTER FIVE REVIEW QUESTIONS

1. 	What does ILS stand for?

2.	The purpose of the ILS is to allow the pilot to conduct an approach in conditions of low ceiling/visibility using only visual references inside the cockpit. (True/False)

3. 	The ILS is a precision approach because it provides 	and	information.

4. 	The localizer transmits in the	to	MHz frequency range and provides 	information to the pilot.

5. 	The glide slope transmits in the UHF frequency of	 to 	MHz.

6. The outer, middle, and inner marker beacons transmit at	MHz. The outer marker indicates to the pilot he/she is beginning the final approach and is approximately	miles from the approach end of the runway.

7.	Published minimums are normally reached at the		marker except in the case of CAT II ILS approach.

8.	The compass locator operates in the	to	KHz frequency range and serves to aid the pilot in navigating around an ILS approach.

9.	ILS CAT I approaches provide for an approach to a height above touchdown or not less than feet and RVR of not less than 	feet.

10. 	CAT II ILS approaches provide for an approach to a height above touchdown of not less than feet and RVR of not less than 	feet if the aircraft is properly equipped IAW FAR Part 91.

11.	When the pilot selects an ILS frequency on the KNS-81, the mode must be manually switched to ILS. (True/False)

12.	The pilot uses the HSI and the copilot uses the CDI when executing an ILS approach. (True/False)

13.	If both HSI and CDI are to be used during an ILS approach, then NAV-1 must be selected by both pilots. (True/False)

14.	The pilot should make all glide slope corrections toward the	on the HSI and all course corrections toward the 	on the HSI when executing an ILS approach.

15. When executing a back course localizer approach, the pilot must make course corrections (towards/away from) the HSI lateral deviation bar, with the front course dialed in.

16. The KR-21 marker beacon receiver in the TH-57C gives the pilot which of the following?

a. 	Outer and middle marker visual ident b. 	Outer and middle visual and aural ident c. 	Outer, middle and inner visual ident d. 	Outer, middle and inner visual and aural ident

17. 	The localizer is considered reliable when the aircraft is

a. 	within 10 degrees of the localizer course and within 18 NM of the transmitter. b. 	within 30 NM of the transmitter and within 30 degrees of the localizer course. c. 	within 35 degrees of the localizer course and within 10 NM of the transmitter. d. 	within 10 degrees of the localizer course and within 30 NM of the transmitter.

18. 	The MAP (Missed Approach Point) on an ILS is the point where the aircraft is at 	.

19. The MAP on a localizer approach is based upon 	 from the FAF.

USE FIGURE 1 TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 20 THROUGH 26.

20. If the pilot filed to CADZU Intersection, upon arrival he/she would be expected to execute the

a. 	holding pattern procedure turn. b. 	straight-in ILS with no procedure turn.

21. What ILS frequency would the pilot select in the KNS-81?

22. What frequency would the pilot select on the KR-87 (ADF) to receive the compass locator?

23. What is the glide slope angle on this approach?

24.	To execute. the missed approach procedure, the pilot must select the VORTAC on NAV-1 or NAV-2.

25.	The TH-57C pilot's decision height for this ILS approach is 	.

26. 	What would your BAR ALT read upon crossing the threshold? .

USE FIGURE 2 TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 27 THROUGH 30.

27. The IAF for this approach is 	.

28. The 45-degree procedure turn is mandatory on this approach. (True/False)

29. 	If the duty runway is 29, the TH-57C pilot's MDA is 	.

30. The pilot identifies the MAP by 		. USE FIGURE 3 TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 31 TO 35. 31. 	If an aircraft is not equipped with DME, can it execute this approach?

32. 	The IAF on this approach is 	.

33. 	After reaching the IAF, the pilot must fly so as to intercept the localizer at 	 DME on the radial from the HOMESTEAD TACAN.

34. 	The FAF is identified as	when flying a TH-57C.

35. 	The pilot would execute the missed approach upon reaching 	. CHAPTER FIVE REVIEW ANSWERS

1. 	Instrument Landing System 2. 	True 3. 	glide slope. . . course 4. 	108.1 . . . 111.9 . . . course 5.	329.15 . . . 335.0 6.	75 . . . 4-7 7. 	middle 8. 	190 . . . 535 9. 	200 . . . 1, 800 10. 	100. . .1,200 11. 	False 12. 	True 13. 	True 14. 	glide slope pointer. . . lateral deviation bar 15. 	toward 16. 	d. 17. 	a. 18. 	decision height 19. 	timing 20. 	b. 21. 	109.1 22. 	335 KHz 23. 	3.0Â° 24. 	Florence 25. 	347 ft. 26. 206 ft. 27. PIPKIInt. 28. 	True 29. 	920 ft. 30. timing from the FAF (PIPKI Int.) 31. 	No 32. 	Gulpe 33. 	10 DME. . . 236 . . . Homestead TACAN 34. 	5 DME from HST 35. 	1 DME from HST